Philosophy 051-01

April 10, 2002

 

1. Kant on lying.  As you read in the essay, Kant is very tough on lying.  Even if a murderer comes to your door and asks where your friend is, you must say “Yes” or remain silent (though the murderer may take your silence to be a “Yes”).  Why is this?

2. The good will.  In Section 2, Kant tells us that the only thing truly valuable is our will or reason, because that is the thing that gives value to everything else.  (Not a very plausible thesis.  Surely whales and dolphins would be valuable even if we did not value them.)  In Section 1, Kant approaches this differently.  He wants to look at what is unqualifiedly good.  He will conclude that only the good will is, namely the will that always acts from duty.

·        At the beginning of Section 1, Kant argues that only the good will is good without qualification.  Kant thinks of qualities such as intelligence, courage, riches, power and perseverance, and says that these are not always good.  Don’t the evil person’s intelligence, courage, riches, power and perseverance make him even worse?

o       Aristotle would seem to disagree about courage and perseverance.  Courage is fearing the things that should be feared.  Thus, Aristotle’s courageous person does fear doing evil!  And Aristotle would say that the virtue of perseverance is the mean between never giving up and always giving up, and the mean is when one perseveres in the things one should persevere in—e.g., not in evil!

o       Probably, by “courage”, Kant just means “ability to stand fast in the face of danger”, and by “perseverance” just “ability not to give up”, rather than the Aristotelian virtues.  So there really is no disagreement here.  Aristotle builds in good will into his definition of courage, for instance.

o       Recall C.S.L.’s idea that all instincts sometimes go wrong.

·        Even happiness can lead to pride and arrogance, and this would be a bad thing.  Moreover, the happiness of a bad person is a bad thing.  Kant says that if someone is very bad, then his “uninterrupted prosperity can never delight a rational and impartial spectator.”  Thus, happiness is not good without qualification.

o       Obviously, Kant has a different notion of happiness than Aristotle or Aquinas.  For Aristotle, happiness was the exercise of virtue, and the proud and arrogant person is not virtuous.  For Aquinas, happiness was the vision of God, and Aquinas thought that having the vision of God makes one like God, i.e., a good person.

·        Thus, only the good will is good without qualification.  Happiness is good with the qualification that it be deserved.

·        “A good will is good and not because of what it effects or accomplishes, nor because of its fitness to attain proposed and; it is good only through its willing, i.e., it is good in itself.” (p. 7)

·        Once again, Kant thinks that it does not matter what comes of an act of will, but the act of will is worthwhile on its own.

·        Is this true?  Is attempted murder just as big a crime as murder, say?

o       Or take this.  If one person intends only to beat up another, but kills him accidentally, he’ll be charged with manslaughter or second degree murder.  But if he doesn’t kill him, he will be charged with much less.  Does this mean that what results matters?

o       Discussion.

§        Well, whether he kills him or not depends in part on how hard he hits.

§        Also, having the law set up this way encourages people to be more careful when fighting.  And it encourages people not to finish off their victims if they change their minds about a murder.

§        Is one more guilty if one succeeds?

§        Certainly one owes more.  If I am beating you up, and I intend only to break your arm, but I poke out your eye as well by accident, I ought to compensate you for your loss of vision.  But am I more guilty?

·        Second argument that happiness is not the one unqualified good that every reasonable person needs to seek.  Kant first makes the assumption that everything in nature has a purpose.  He then asks why we have reason.  Reason can lead us to unhappiness.  Reason can, after all, easily be deluded.  If nature’s purpose for us was our happiness, then nature would not have given us reason, but simply an instinct that leads us to becoming happy.  Reason sets goals for us.  Thus, it can set a goal for us that does not involve happiness.

·        This argument works a little better if instead of “reason” we talk about free will.  If nature’s purpose for us was to be happy, why would we be able to choose unhappiness?

·        But if our purpose is to gain a good will, then it makes sense for us to have reason, since for Kant, will is very closely tied to reason.  Good will just is reason’s control over our actions.

o       Recall how action worked for Aristotle.  The intellect chose what things we should have desires for, and the appetitive part followed this, and the appetitive part then caused our actions.  For Kant, the intellect directly makes us act when we have a good will.  But we can also act from inclinations such as fears or desires.  So each of these two aspects of us (reason and inclination) can cause action separately.  [[Thus, Kant can say that we are only truly free when reason causes our action.  And he thinks that when reason causes the action, the action accords with the CI.  (Problem: Didn’t he just tell us that reason can be deluded?  Or is he using “reason” in two different senses?)  Thus only the right actions are truly free.]]